No. It doesn't.Prior to it being a state it was a territory. Once a territory becomes a state the federal government must give that land to the state.You completely missed that the property must be used to support the enumerated clauses of Article 1 section 8. Is 30% of the nation a post office?That's precisely what I said. Article IV, Section 3, second clause gives the federal government the ability to control land within state boundaries. Particularly when you consider that much of this land belonged to the federal government long before a state's borders were established around it.
This is why we can no longer have nice things. You intentionally misunderstand federalism and the Constitution.Of course, again, states are subservient to the federal government anyway so even if it was land within the state before it was federal government land, it's federal government land now.